SOLVED PAPER SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL Tier-I EXAM

107 Pages·2012·2.01 MB·English

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SOLVED PAPER SOLVED PAPER 1
SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL
Tier-I EXAM
Held on: 01.07.2012 (First Sitting)
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & (1) LNO (2) LON
(3) PWK (4) PON
REASONING
9. AEZ : FPY : : BGX : ?
Directions (1 - 9): In each of the following (l) HWW (2) IYY
questions, select the related letters / word in (3) HTX (4) HYW
umber from the given alternatives. Directions (10 - 17) : In each of the following
questions, find the odd number /letters/word /
1. 8 : 12 : : 6 : ?
number pair from the given alternatives.
(1) 8 (2) 11
(3) 5 (4) 7 10. (1) SP (2) NL
(3) ZW (4) TQ
2. 13: 19: : 21 : ?
11. (1) Major (2) Colonel
(1) 41 (2) 81
(3) Brigadier (4) Admiral
(3) 141 (4) 14
12. (1) Life Insurance Corporation
3. Eagle : Swoops :: Duck: ?
(2) New India Assurance Company Ltd.
(1) waddles (2) floats
(3) United India Insurance Company Ltd.
(3) swims (4) flits
(4) National Insurance Company Ltd.
4. APPLE: 50 : : ORANGE : ?
13. (1) Hurdle (2) Disease
(1) 60 (2) 69
(3) Barrier (4) Obstacle
(3) 61 (4) 63
14. (1) Mar (2) Remedy
5. Accommodation: Rent:: Journey: ? (3) Maim (4) Mutilate
(1) Freight (2) Octrol 15. (1) Socrates (2) Beethoven
(3) Fare (3) Mozart (4) Bach
(4) Expense 16. (1) (132, 5) (2) (125, 8)
6. Fire : Smoke : : ? (3) (124, 7) (4) (112, 4)
(1) Children : School 17. (1) 6246-6296 (2) 7137-7267
(2) Cloud : Rain (3) 4344-4684 (4) 5235-5465
(3) Moon : Sky
Directions (18 - 22): In each of the following
(4) Shoe : Polish
questions, a series is given, with one term
7. Grenade: Gun: : ? missing. Choose the correct alternative from the
(1) Sister : Brother given ones that will complete the series.
(2) Father : Mother
18. YX, UTS, ONML, ?
(3) Man : Woman
(1) FEDCB (2) CFEDC
(4) Head : Brain
(3) IHGFE (4) HGFED
8. TSH : IRQ : : QPK : ? 19. DA, HE, LI, ? , TN
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2 SOLVED PAPER
(1) PJ (2) PT a (cid:209)b (cid:209)c implies
(3) PM (4) PK
(1) a DA b f c
20. B E I NT ?
(2) a b + c
(1) X (2) Y
(3) a o b + c
(3) A (4) Z
(4) a o b x c
21. AZ, CX, EV, ?
(1) HT (2) HU
(3) GS (4) GT 2 3
22. D9Y, J27S, P81M, V243G, __?__.
29. = ?
(1) A324B (2) C729B 4 5
(3) B729A (4) A729B
23. Which one set of letters when sequentially (1) 14400 (2) 15600
placed at the gaps in the given letter series (3) 23040 (4) 17400
shall complete it ? 30. If PEAR is written a GFDN how is REAP
__c__bd__cbcda__a__db__a written in this code?
(1) daabbc (2) bdbcba (1) FDNG (2) NFDG
(3) adabcd (4) cdbbca (3) DNGF (4) NDFG
Directions (24 - 27): In each of the following 31. If 54 + 43 = 2, 60 + 51 = 10, then 62 + 72 =?
questions, identify the wrong number in the (1) 30 (2) 18
series. (3) 20 (4) 9
32. If L denotes x
24. 9,19,40,83, 170,340
M denotes ÷
(1) 83. (2) 40
P denotes +
(3) 340 (4) 170
Q denotes –
25. 21,28,33,35.37,36
then 16 P 24 M 8 Q 6 M 2 L 3 = ?
(1) 21 (2) 36
(1) 10 (2) 9
(3) 33 (4) 35
(3) 12 (4) 11
26. 5,13,29,61,120,253
33. In this question, from the given alternatives
(1) 120 (2) 253
select the word which cannot be formed by
(3) 61 (4) 29
using the letters of the given word.
27. 0,7,28,63, 124,215
APPROPRIATE
(1) 28 (2) 215
(1) PIRATE (2) APPROVE
(3) 7 (4) 63
(3) PROPER (4) RAPPORT
28. Some relationships have been expressed
34. If FLATTER is coded as 7238859 and
through symbols which are explained
MOTHER is coded as 468159, then how is
below:
MAMMOTH coded?
0 = greater than (1) 4344681 (2) 4344651
D = not equal to (3) 4146481 (4) 4346481
× = not less than 35. If l6 - 2= 2,9 - 3 = 0, 81 -1 = 8, then what is 64
+ = equal to - 4 = ?
(1) 4 (2) 2
f = not greater than
(3) 6 (4) 8
(cid:209) = less than
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SOLVED PAPER 3
Directions (36 - 37) : In each of the following (1) 5km (2) 6km
questions, select the missing number from the (3) 3km (4) 4km
given responses.
Directions (40 - 41): In each of the following
questions, one/two statements are given,
followed by two conclusions I and II. You have
to consider the statements to be true, even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You have to decide which of the given
conclusions, if any follow from the given
statement.
36.
40. Statements :
Temple is a place of worship. Church is also
a place of worship.
(1) 20 (3) 10 Conclusions:
(2) 25 (4) 15 I. Hindus and Christians use the same
place for worship.
10 11 15 II. All churches are temples.
12 12 8 (1) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
4 12 10 (2) Both conclusions I and II follow
37.
10 5 13 (3) Only conclusion I follows
18 20 ? (4) Only conclusion II follows
41. Statement:
(1) 21 (2) 20
(3) 23 (4) 22 The human organism grows and develops
through stimulation and action.
38. Four aeroplanes of Airforce viz, A,B,C,D,
started for a demonstration flight towards Concluslons:
east. After flying 50 km planes A and D flew I. Inert human organism cannot grow and
towards right, planes B and C flew towards develop.
left. After 50 km, planes B and C flew II. Human organisms do not react to
towards their left, planes A and D also stimulation and action.
towards their left. In which directions are (l) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
the aeroplanes A, B, D, C respectively flying (2) Both conclusions I and II follow
now? (3) Only conclusion I follows
(l) North, South” East, West (4) Only conclusion II follows
(2) South, North, West, East
42. If the first four letters of a term
(3) East, West, West, East
HIPPNOWADIASM are written in reverse
(4) West, East, West, East
order, the next five letters are written without
39. Satish start from A and walks 2 km east upto changing their order and then, the remaining
B and turns southwards and walks 1 km letters are again written in reverse order,
upto C. At C he turns to east and walks 2 km then which letter is in the middle of the word?
upto D. He then turns northwards and (1) O (2) W
walks 4 km to E. How far is he from his (3) A (4) I
starting point?
43. In the following letter series how many times
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4 SOLVED PAPER
do PQR occur in such away hat Q is in the Answer Figures
middle of P and R.
Q M P N P Q R R O P N O P P R P
M Q R O P Q R P P R R P Q R P BB BB BB BB
(1) 5 (2) 6 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) 4 (4) 3
47. If SEARCH is coded as TFBSDI. how will
44. Volume of a sphere is equal to the volume of
PENCIL be coded?
a hemisphere. If the radius of the hemisphere
(1) RGPEN (2) LICNEP
is 33 2 cm, then the radius of the sphere is (3) QFODJM (4) QLMBHK
equal to 48. Which answer Figure completes the form in
question figure?
(l) 93 2cm
Question Figure
(2) 632cm
(3) 27 cm
(4) 3 cm
45. A sheet of paper has been folded as shown
by the question figures. You have to figure
out from amongst the four answer figures
how it will appear when opened?
Question Figures
Answer FIgures
Answer Figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)
49. From the answer figures, select the one in
which the question figure is hidden/
embedded.
(a) (b) (c) (d) Question Figure
46. Which of the answer figure is exactly the
mirror image of the question figure if a mirror
is placed on the line MN?
Question Figure
Answer Figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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SOLVED PAPER 5
50. A word is represented by only one set of GENERAL AWARENESS
numbers as given in anyone of the
alternatives. The sets of numbers given 51. The National Commission for Minorities
in the alternatives are represented by was constituted in the year
two classes of alphabets as in two (a) 1990 (b) 1992
matrices given below. The columns and (c) 1980 (d) 1989
rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 52. The first Indian who was chosen as the
4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from Secretary General of Commonwealth is
5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be (a) Rakesh Verma
represented first by its row and next by (b) Gopalaswami
its column, e.g. ‘A’ can be represented (c) Krishna Murthy
by 10. 33, etc and ‘H’ can be represented (d) Kamalesh SHarma
by 59. 78. etc. Similarly you have to
53. In which of the following systems of
identify the set for the word GUIDE.
government is bicameralism an essential
Matrix I
feature?
(1) Federal system
0 1 2 3 4
(2) Unitary system
0 I E A O U (3) Parliamentary system
(4) Presidential system
1 A O U I E
54. Kuldip Nayer, a journalist, was appointed
2 E I O U A as a High Commissioner in
(1) Sri Lanka (2) Australia
3 O U E A I
(3) UK (4) Pakistan
4 U A I E O 55. Which king is referred to as Devanampiya
Piyadassi (Beloved of the Gods) in the
Matrix II
inscriptions?
(1) Asoka (2) Harsha
5 6 7 8 9 (3) Bindusara
(4) Chandragupta Maurya
5 F D B G H
56. Socialism succeeds in achieving
6 B G H F D (1) higher standard of living of the people
(2) equal distribution of income in the
7 D F G H B society.
(3) higher individual welfare in the society
8 G H D B F
(4) maximum social welfare in the society
9 H B F G D 57. Monopolist resorts to price discrimination
depending upon the
(1) 85, 23, 21, 87, 32 (1) Elasticity of supply
(2) 58, 31, 12, 57, 41 (2) Elasticity of demand
(3) 77, 13, 42, 99, 32 (3) Law of demand
(4) 66, 31, 43, 78, 14 (4) Law of supply
58. Economic planning is an essential feature
of
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6 SOLVED PAPER
(1) Socialist economy (2) weakening of heart muscles leading to
(2) Capitalist economy cardiac arrest
(3) Mixed economy (3) blood cancer
(4) Dual economy (4) Cirrhosis
59. The HYV programme in India is also’ called 67. The organisms at the base of the grazing
as food-chain are
(1) Traditional Agriculture (1) Carnivores (2) Decomposers
(2) New Agricultural Strategy (3) Producers (4) Herbivores
(3) White Revolution 68. Who among the following was credited
(4) Blue Revolution. with the destruction of Chinalgani, a group
60. The National Policy for Empowerment of of powerful nobles?
Women was adopted in the year (1) Balban
(1) 2001 (2) 2005 (2) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
(3) 1991 (4) 1995 (3) Iltutmish
61. Ballots were first used in (4) Razia- Sultan
(1) Australia 69. Bombay was given away as dowry to the
(2) USA English King Charles II for marrying the
(3) Ancient Greece Princess of
(4) England (1) France (2) Portugal
62. The Rashtrtya Barh Ayog (RBA) is related (3) Holland (4) Denmark
with 70. The ‘Grand Trunk Road built by Shershah
(1) Droughts and Floods connected Punjab with
(2) Poverty Alleviation (1) Agra (2) East Bengal
(3) Floods (3) Lahore (4) Multan
(4) Disaster Management 71. Nam the Maratha Saint who was a
63. Which of the following criteria is not used contemporary of Shivaji.
for the classification of human races? (1) Saint Eknath
(1) Nose (2) Hair (2) Saint Tukaram
(3) Eyes (4)Ear (3) Saint Dhyaneshwar
64. Railway coaches are manufactured at (4) Namdev
(1) Jamshedpur 72. The study of lake is called
(2) Chittaranjan (1) Topology
(3) Perambur (2) Hydrology
(4) Varanasi (3) Limnology
65. Fertilization occurs normally in the (4) Potomology
(1) Cervix 73. A series of lines connecting places having a
(2) Vagina quake at the same time are called
(3) Fallopian tube (1) Homoseismal lines
(4) Uterus (2) Seismolines
66. People consuming alcohol in heavy (3) Coseisrnal lines
quantities generally die of (4) Isoseismallines
(1) liver or stomach cancer 74. ‘Lumen’ is the unit of
(1) Illuminance
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SOLVED PAPER 7
(2) Brightness (1) Club wheat (2) Durum wheat
(3) Luminous flux (3) Emmer wheat (4) Bread wheat
(4) Luminous intensity 84. Which one of the following forces is a
75. The transfer of date from a CPU to peripheral ‘dissipative force’?
devices of computer is achieved through (1) Electrostatic force
(1) interfaces (2) Magnetic force
(2) buffer memory (3) Gravitational force
(3) modems (4) Frictional force
(4) computer ports 85. If a resistive wire is elongated, its resistance
76. Which of the following items is not used in (1) decreases
Local Area Networks (LANs) ? (2) remains constant
(1) Interface Card (3) increases
(2) Cable (4) All of the above
(3) Computer (4) Modem 86. If a magnet has a third pole, then the third
77. The mass of 10 moles of water is . pole is called
(1) 90 g (2) 45 g (1) defective pole
(3) 18 g (4) 180 g (2) consequent pole
78. Vitamin A is rich in (3) extra pole
(1) Carrot (2) Lime (4) arbitrary pole
(3) Beans (4) Rice 87. How many spokes are there in the
79. The high boiling point of water compared Dharmachakra of the National Flag?
to hydrogen sulphide or hydrogen chloride (1) 14 (2) 18
is due to (3) 22 (4) 24
(1) Dipole insulation 88. The latest official language of the U.N. is
(2) Vander Waal’s attraction (1) Russian (2) Arabic
(3) Polar covalent bonding (3) Chinese (4) Spanish
(4) Hydrogen bonding 89. Srikrishna Committee Report which was
80. Which of the following determines the made public in 2011, is related to
chemical properties of an element? (1) rejuvenation of higher education
(1) Number of electrons (2) demand for a separate Telangana State
(2) Number of neutrons (3) ragging in educational institutions
(3) Number of protons (4) impeachment of Justice Dinakaran
(4) All of the above 90. The latest book “Kurukshetra to Kargil’ is
81. The Central Drug Research Institute of India written by
is located at (1) Suryanath Singh
(1) Madras (2) Lucknow (2) Kunal Bhardwaj
(3) Delhi (4) Bangalore (3) Karan Singh
82. Which of the following cereals was among (4) Kuldip Singh
the first to be used by man ? 91. The Educational Development Index (EDI)
(1) Rye (2) Wheat Report., released in 2011, is led by
(3) Rarley (4) Oat (l) Tamil Nadu (2) Puducherry
83. What of the following wheat species are (3) Kerala
being cultivated in India? (4) Lakshadweep
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8 SOLVED PAPER
92. Shunglu Committee, which submitted its QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
report in 2011, is related to
(1) Commonwealth Games scandal 101. P and Q are two points observed from the
(2) reforms in the Insurance sector
top of a building 10 3 m high. IF the angles
(3) revamp of Defence management
of depression of the points are
(4) management of Co-operative Sector
complementary and PQ = 20 m, then the
93. The 65th National Football Championship
distance of P from the building is
(Santosh Trophy 2011) was won by
(a) 25 m
(1) Bangal (2) Punjab
(b) 45 m
(3) Manipur (4) Goa
(c) 30 m
94. The organisation involved primarily with
(d) 40 m
environmental planning is
102. If A and are complementary angles, then the
(1) CIFRI (2) ICAR
value of
(3) CSIR (4) NEERI
Sin A cos B + cos A sin B – tan A tan B + sec2
95. What would be the impact of global warming
A – cot2 B is
on mangrove forests?
(1) They will grow more luxurious (a) 2 (b) 0
(2) Large areas of mangroves will be (c) 0 (d) -1
submerged 103. The least value of 2sin2q+ 2cos2q is
(3) Their role as carbon sinks will become
(a) 3 (b) 5
more important
(c) 1 (d) 2
(4) Both (1) and (3) above
104. A,O,B are three points on a line segment and
96. The sweet taste of fruits is due to
C is a points not lying on AOB. IF —AOC =
(1) Lactose (2) Fructose
40o and OX, OY are the internal and external
(3) Maltose (4) Ribose
97. The most endangered Asiatic top predator bisectors of —AOC respectively, then
on the edge of extinction is —BOY is
(1) Black Bear (a) 70o (b) 80o
(2) Asiatic Lion (3) Siberian Tiger (c) 75o (d) 68o
(4) Dhole
4
98. Analects is the sacred book of
105. If 4x = sec q and = tan q then
(1) Confucianism x
(2) Judaism
(cid:230) 1 (cid:246)
(3) Shintoism 8(cid:231)x2 - (cid:247) is
(4) Taoism Ł x2 ł
99. The seat of Madhya Pradesh High Court is
1 1
located at (a) (b)
16 8
(1) Gwalior (2) Indore
(3) Bhopal (4) Jabalpur 1 1
(c) (d)
100.The brightest planet is 2 4
(1) Venus (2) Mercury
106. If 2 – cos2q = 3 sin q cos q, sin q „ cos q
(3) Jupiter
(4) Mars then tanq is
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SOLVED PAPER 9
at the points P and Q respectively. Then the
1
(a) (b) 0 area of a square with one side PQ, is
2
(a) 97 sq.cm (b) 194 sq.cm
2 1 (c) 72 sq.cm (d) 144 sq.cm
(c) (d)
3 3 112. Two tangent are drawn from a point P to a
circle at A and B. O is the centre of the circle.
107. If sinq + cos q 2 cos (90 - q), then cot q
If —AOP = 60°, then —APB is
is
(a) 120° (b) 90°
(a) 2 +1 (b) 0 (c) 60° (d) 30°
(c) 2 (d) 2 -1 113. If each interior angle is double of each
108. If x sin2q + y cos3q = sin q cosq and x exterior angle of a regular polygon with n
sides, then the value of n is
sinq = y cosq, sinq „ q, cosq0, then x2 +
(a) 8 (b) 10
y3 is
(c) 5 (d) 6
1 1 114. If the length of the side PQ of the rhombus
(a) (b)
2 2 PQRS is 6cm and —PQR = 120°, then the
length of QS, in cm, is
(c) 1 (d) 2
(a) 4 (b) 6
109. In the following figure, O is the centre of the
(c) 3 (d) 5
circle and XO is perpendicular to OY. If the
115. The angle formed by the hour-hand and the
area of the triangle XOY is 32, then the area
minute-hand of a clock at 2 : 15 p.m. is
of the circle is
1
(a) 27 (cid:176) (b) 45°
2
1
(c) 22 (cid:176) (d) 30°
2
116.Two sides of a triangle are of length 4 cm and
10 cm. If the length of the third side is ‘a’ cm,
then
(a) a > 5 (b) 6£ a£ 12
(a) 64 (b) 256
(c) a < 6 (d) 6 < a < 14
(c) 16 (d) 32
110. The side BC of DABC is produced to D. If 1
117. If x = (0.08)2, y = (0.08)2 and z = (1 – 0.08)2
1
DACD = 108° and —B = —A then —A – 1, then out of the following, the true
2
relation is
is
(a) y < x and x = z
(a) 36° (b) 72°
(b) x < y and x = z
(c) 108° (d) 59°
(c) y < x < x (d) z < x < y
111.Two circles of radii 4cm and 9 cm respectively
118. In xy plane, P and Q are two points having
touch each a common tangent touches then
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